250 Important GK Questions for Class 4

1. GK Questions for Class 4 - Human body and health

Q1) Match the following and select the correct answer:

a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Answer: c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Explanation: An ophthalmologist is a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of eye disorders and diseases.

An orthopedic surgeon focuses on the musculoskeletal system and treats conditions related to bones, joints, muscles, and ligaments.

An oncologist is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of cancer, including chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery.

A dermatologist is a medical professional who deals with the diagnosis and treatment of skin conditions, disorders, and diseases.

Q2) Which of the following options is correct?

A. Water soluble vitamins - B and C

B. Fat soluble vitamins - A, D, E and K

a) Option A is correct

b) Option B is correct

c) Both options are correct

d) Both options are wrong

Answer: c) Both options are correct

Explanation: Both Option A and Option B are correct. Water soluble vitamins include vitamins B and C, which are not stored in the body and need to be consumed regularly. Fat soluble vitamins include vitamins A, D, E, and K, which are stored in the body's fatty tissues and can be used when needed.

Q3) The main job of ___ is to carry______ from the lungs to the body tissues and____as a waste product, away from the tissues and back to the lungs.

a) White blood cells, carbon dioxide, oxygen

b) Red blood cells, carbon dioxide, oxygen

c) White blood cells, oxygen, carbon dioxide

d) Red blood cells, oxygen, carbon dioxide

Answer: d) Red blood cells, oxygen, carbon dioxide

Explanation: Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and transporting carbon dioxide, a waste product, away from the tissues back to the lungs for exhalation. White blood cells are part of the immune system and play a role in fighting infections.

Q4) Match the following.

a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer: c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation:

Beri Beri is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B complex.

Night blindness can be caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A.

Rickets is a condition related to Vitamin D deficiency.

Vitamin E helps in preventing aging.

Q5) Match the following symptoms with their corresponding medical terms:

a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Answer: a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Explanation:

Amnesia refers to the loss of memory and can result from various factors such as trauma, injury, or medical conditions.

Dyspnea is the medical term for difficulty in breathing, often caused by conditions affecting the respiratory system or other underlying health issues.

The symptom of the body's temperature rising can indicate a rise in body temperature, which may occur due to fever, the body's response to infections or other medical conditions.

Arthritis is characterized by the swelling of joints, leading to pain and decreased mobility. It can affect different joints in the body.

Q6) Identify the odd one out:

a) Stomach

b) Brain

c) Liver

d) Heart

Answer: b) Brain

Explanation: The brain is an organ responsible for cognitive functions, while the other options are internal organs.

Q7) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: The small intestine is longer than the large intestine.
Statement B: The large intestine absorbs water and minerals from food.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: c) Both Statement A and B are correct

Explanation: Statement A is correct as the small intestine is longer than the large intestine. Statement B is correct as the large intestine primarily absorbs water and minerals from the remaining food particles.

Q8) Which body system is responsible for delivering oxygen to cells and removing carbon dioxide?

a) Digestive system

b) Respiratory system

c) Circulatory system

d) Muscular system

Answer: b) Respiratory system

Explanation: The respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the body and the environment through breathing.

Q9) Which sense is associated with the taste of food?

a) Smell

b) Touch

c) Hearing

d) Sight

Answer: a) Smell

Explanation: The sense of smell plays a significant role in perceiving the taste of food by detecting aromas and flavors.

Q10) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: The pancreas produces insulin and regulates blood sugar levels.
Statement B: The liver pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: a) Only Statement A is correct

Explanation: Statement A is correct as the pancreas is responsible for producing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. Statement B is incorrect as the liver's main function is not to pump oxygenated blood throughout the body; instead, it plays a role in filtering blood, producing bile, and performing various metabolic functions.

Q11) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: The respiratory system includes the heart and lungs.

Statement B: The trachea is also known as the windpipe.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: c) Both Statement A and B are correct

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the respiratory system involves the lungs for gas exchange and the heart for pumping oxygenated blood. Statement B is also correct; the trachea is indeed referred to as the windpipe and serves as the passage for air between the throat and lungs.

Q12) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: Enzymes are a type of carbohydrate.

Statement B: Enzymes help speed up chemical reactions in the body.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: b) Only Statement B is correct

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; enzymes are not carbohydrates but rather proteins that act as catalysts to accelerate chemical reactions in the body. Statement B is accurate as enzymes play a crucial role in various physiological processes by lowering the activation energy needed for reactions to occur.

Q13) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: The optic nerve connects the ear to the brain.

Statement B: The iris controls the amount of light entering the eye.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: b) Only Statement B is correct

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; the optic nerve connects the eye to the brain, not the ear. Statement B is correct; the iris is the colored part of the eye and controls the size of the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye.

Q14) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: The epidermis is the innermost layer of the skin.

Statement B: The gallbladder produces digestive enzymes to break down fats.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: b) Only Statement B is correct

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; the epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, not the innermost. Statement B is correct; the gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver and releases it to help digest fats in the small intestine.

Q15) Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement A: Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.

Statement B: The kidneys filter waste products from the blood.

a) Only Statement A is correct

b) Only Statement B is correct

c) Both Statement A and B are correct

d) Neither Statement A nor B is correct

Answer: c) Both Statement A and B are correct

Explanation: Statement A is correct; red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow of certain bones. Statement B is also correct; the kidneys play a vital role in filtering waste products from the blood, forming urine, and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance.

Q16) The __________ is often called the "brain" of the cell. It controls the cell's activities and contains genetic information in the form of __________.

a) nucleus, DNA

b) cytoplasm, enzymes

c) cell membrane, proteins

d) mitochondria, carbohydrates

Answer: a) nucleus, DNA

Explanation: The nucleus is often called the "brain" of the cell. It controls the cell's activities and contains genetic information in the form of DNA.

Q17) The __________ is a large muscle that pumps blood throughout the body. It has four chambers: the __________ and the __________.

a) liver, atrium, ventricle

b) heart, atrium, ventricle

c) lung, left atrium, right atrium

d) stomach, left ventricle, right ventricle

Answer: b) heart, atrium, ventricle

Explanation: The heart is a large muscle that pumps blood throughout the body. It has four chambers: the atria and the ventricles.

Q18) The __________ is a system in our body that helps us breathe. It includes the __________ and the __________, which exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

a) digestive system, mouth, stomach

b) respiratory system, lungs, trachea

c) circulatory system, heart, veins

d) nervous system, brain, spinal cord

Answer: b) respiratory system, lungs, trachea

Explanation: The respiratory system is responsible for breathing. It includes the lungs and the trachea (windpipe), which exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of respiration.

Q19) The process of breaking down food into simpler substances in our body takes place in the __________. It produces a substance called __________ which helps in digestion.

a) liver, insulin

b) stomach, bile

c) pancreas, saliva

d) small intestine, mucus

Answer: b) stomach, bile

Explanation: The process of breaking down food into simpler substances occurs in the stomach. It produces a substance called bile, which helps in digesting fats and aids in the absorption of nutrients.

Q20) The __________ is a protective covering for our body that helps in regulating temperature and preventing harmful substances from entering. It is composed of three layers: the __________, __________, and __________.

a) heart, skin, muscles, bones

b) brain, skull, spine, nerves

c) skin, epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

d) lungs, alveoli, bronchi, trachea

Answer: c) skin, epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue

Explanation: The skin is a protective covering for our body. It consists of three layers: the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, each with specific functions in maintaining body temperature and protecting against external factors.

2. GK Questions for Class 4 - Plants and animals

Q21) Which of the following statements are correct?

Statement I: Coffin fish has the ability to walk along the sea floor on short leg-like fins.

Statement II: Piranhas have one of the strongest bites found in bony fishes.

Statement III: Giant oarfish is the longest bony fish in the world.

Statement IV: Gulper eel has a large mouth that is loosely hinged and can be opened wide enough to swallow a fish much larger than itself.

a) I and II only

b) II and III only

c) III and IV only

d) I, II, III and IV only

Answer: d) I, II, III and IV only

Explanation: All the statements are correct. Coffin fish can walk along the sea floor, piranhas have strong bites, giant oarfish is long, and gulper eel has a large mouth for swallowing.

Q22) Which of the following statements are correct?

Statement I: Elephants are the smallest mammals on Earth.

Statement II: Reptiles are warm-blooded animals.

Statement III: Bats are the only mammals capable of sustained flight.

Statement IV: Birds have lungs and breathe in oxygen like mammals.

a) Statement I and II

b) Statement II and III

c) Statement III and IV

d) Statement I, III, and IV

Answer: c) Statement III and IV

Explanation: Statement III and IV are correct. Bats are the only mammals capable of sustained flight, and birds have lungs and breathe in oxygen like mammals.

Q23) Identify the correct statements

Statement I: Roots anchor the plant in the soil and absorb water and nutrients.

Statement II: Leaves are the primary site for photosynthesis in plants.

Statement III: All plants reproduce through seeds.

Statement IV: Flowers are present only in flowering plants (angiosperms).

a) Statement I and II

b) Statement II and III

c) Statement III and IV

d) Statement I, III, and IV

Answer: a) Statement I and II

Explanation: Statement I is true as roots anchor the plant and absorb water and nutrients. Statement II is true as leaves perform photosynthesis.

Q24) Identify the correct statements

Statement I: Camouflage is an adaptation that helps animals hide from predators.

Statement II: Hibernation is a behavior animals use to survive the cold winter months.

Statement III: Mammals have gills to help them breathe underwater.

Statement IV: Animals in the desert often have large ears to help cool their bodies.

a) Statement I and II

b) Statement II and III

c) Statement I, III, and IV

d) Statement I, II, III, and IV

Answer: a) Statement I and II

Explanation: Statement I is true as camouflage helps animals hide. Statement II is true as hibernation is a survival strategy for cold weather.

Q25) Identify the animal based on the given characteristics:

Characteristic I: This animal is known for its distinctive black and white fur pattern.

Characteristic II: It primarily feeds on bamboo and belongs to the bear family.

Characteristic III: It is native to China and is considered a symbol of conservation efforts.

Characteristic IV: Despite its size, it has a gentle and peaceful demeanor.

a) A: Panda, B: Zebra, C: Skunk, D: Dalmatian

b) A: Koala, B: Penguin, C: Raccoon, D: Cheetah

c) A: Lemur, B: Polar bear, C: Giraffe, D: Ostrich

d) A: Chimpanzee, B: Rhino, C: Red fox, D: Tiger

Answer: a) A: Panda, B: Zebra, C: Skunk, D: Dalmatian

Explanation: The given characteristics match with the animal mentioned in option A, which is the panda.

Q26) Which of the following animals lay eggs?

a) Dolphins

b) Lions

c) Elephants

d) Crocodiles

Answer: d) Crocodiles

Explanation: Crocodiles are reptiles and lay eggs. Dolphins are mammals and give birth to live young. Lions and elephants are mammals as well and give birth to live young.

Q27) Which of the following plants reproduce through spores?

a) Sunflowers

b) Roses

c) Ferns

d) Tulips

Answer: c) Ferns

Explanation: Ferns are a type of plant that reproduces through spores. Sunflowers, roses, and tulips are flowering plants that reproduce through seeds.

Q28) Which adaptation helps animals protect themselves?

a) Decomposition

b) Mimicry

c) Camouflage

d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)

Explanation: Both mimicry and camouflage are adaptations that animals use to protect themselves from predators.

Q29) Which structural adaptation allows the pine tree to survive in hilly areas?

A) Needle-like leaves

B) Cones instead of flowers

C) Green fleshy stem

D) Breathing roots

Answer: b) (A) and (C)

Explanation: Pine trees have needle-like leaves that reduce water loss and cones instead of flowers, helping them adapt to hilly areas.

Q30) Identify the plant that does not belong to the same category as the others:

a) Fir

b) Spruce

c) Deodars

d) Pitcher plant

Answer: d) Pitcher plant

Explanation: Among the given options, the "Pitcher plant" is not a type of coniferous tree, unlike the others.

Q31) What type of plant is pond weed?

a) Aquatic plant

b) Mangrove

c) Mountainous

d) Desert

Answer: a) Aquatic plant

Explanation: Pond weed is an example of an aquatic plant that grows in water bodies like ponds and lakes.

Q28) Which adaptation is demonstrated by a chameleon changing its color to blend in with its surroundings?

a) Migration

b) Camouflage

c) Hibernation

d) Extinction

Answer: b) Camouflage

Explanation: Camouflage is the adaptation that allows animals like chameleons to blend into their environment, making them less visible to predators.

Q29) How does the white coat of polar bears benefit them?

a) Camouflage

b) Looking bigger

c) Drying faster

d) Staying healthy

Answer: a) Camouflage

Explanation: The white coat of polar bears helps them blend into their snowy surroundings, acting as camouflage and making it easier for them to hunt.

Q30) The swollen stem of a cactus is important for _____.

a) Absorbing more oxygen

b) Absorbing more protein

c) Absorbing more water

d) Absorbing more sunlight

Answer: c) Absorbing more water

Explanation: The swollen stem of a cactus stores water, allowing the plant to survive in arid environments with limited water availability.

Q31) Which type of microbe causes the common cold?

a) Virus

b) Fungi

c) Bacteria

d) Protozoa

Answer: a) Virus

Explanation: The common cold is primarily caused by viruses, such as rhinoviruses, which infect the respiratory system.

Q32) How have fish adapted to move in water?

a) They have gills

b) They have fins

c) They have legs

d) They have paddle-like flippers

Answer: b) They have fins

Explanation: Fins are adaptations that help fish maneuver and move efficiently in water, aiding in their swimming and navigation.

Q33) Plants of the grass family are also known as _____.

a) Carnivorous plants

b) Herbaceous plants

c) Bushy plants

d) All of the above

Answer: b) Herbaceous plants

Explanation: Plants of the grass family, like wheat and rice, are often referred to as herbaceous plants due to their non-woody stems.

Q34) Which animals are warm-blooded?

a) Reptiles

b) Fish

c) Amphibians

d) Birds

Answer: d) Birds

Explanation: Birds are warm-blooded animals, meaning they can regulate their body temperature internally, unlike cold-blooded animals like reptiles.

Q35) How does the skin of polar bears and penguins keep them warm?

a) Piece of blanket

b) Insulated wool layer

c) Insulated fat layer

d) Insulated protein layer

Answer: c) Insulated fat layer

Explanation: The skin of polar bears and penguins contains a thick layer of fat that acts as insulation, keeping them warm in their cold environments.

Q36) What shape do plants grown on mountains often have?

a) Conical

b) Palm

c) Rectangular

d) None of these

Answer: a) Conical

Explanation: Plants grown on mountains often have a conical shape, which helps them shed snow and resist strong winds.

Q37) What are coniferous trees also referred to as?

a) Deciduous

b) Spongy

c) Evergreen

d) Aquatic

Answer: c) Evergreen

Explanation: Coniferous trees are commonly known as evergreen trees because they retain their leaves (needles) throughout the year.

Q38) Among the following trees, which one grows in plain areas?

a) Teak

b) Pistia

c) Deodar

d) Oak

Answer: a) Teak

Explanation: Teak trees are known to grow in plain areas and are valued for their durable wood.

Q39) During which weather do deciduous trees go dormant?

a) Spring

b) Summer

c) Winter

d) Autumn

Answer: d) Autumn

Explanation: Deciduous trees go dormant during autumn as they shed their leaves and prepare for the colder winter months.

Q40) In which type of areas do palms and tamarind trees grow?

a) Hot and damp areas

b) Cold areas

c) Areas with heavy rain

d) Desert areas

Answer: a) Hot and damp areas

Explanation: Palms and tamarind trees thrive in hot and damp tropical areas with consistent warmth and moisture.

3. GK Questions for Class 4 - Transport and communication

Q41) What are un-metalled roads constructed for unobstructed vehicle movement known as?

a) Highways

b) Footpath

c) Expressways

d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: a) Highways

Explanation: Un-metalled roads constructed for unobstructed vehicle movement are commonly known as highways.

Q42) Which of these is considered the fastest and cheapest mode of communication?

a) Newspaper

b) Television

c) Post cards

d) Internet

Answer: d) Internet

Explanation: The internet is considered the fastest and cheapest mode of communication as it allows for instant exchange of information and can be accessed economically.

Q43) What is a train that can carry many people from one place to another known as?

a) Goods train

b) Passenger train

c) Commuter train

d) Special train

Answer: b) Passenger train

Explanation: A train that can carry many people from one place to another is known as a passenger train.

Q44) Aeroplanes depart from Airports. From where do ships depart?

a) Harbours

b) Footpath

c) Bus stand

d) None of these

Answer: a) Harbours

Explanation: Ships typically depart from harbours, which serve as ports for maritime transportation.

Q45) Local trains are famous in which of the following places?

a) Mumbai

b) Kerala

c) Goa

d) Delhi

Answer: a) Mumbai

Explanation: Local trains are famous in Mumbai, where they play a crucial role in the city's public transportation system.

Q46) State whether the following statements are true or false.

(i) Rajdhani Express is a luxury bus

(ii) Letters sent through speed post can reach faster than ordinary post

(iii) Radio is a means of communication

a) (i) – T, (ii) - F, (iii) - F

b) (i) – F, (ii) - T, (iii) - T

c) (i) – F, (ii) - T, (iii) - F

d) None of the above

Answer: b) (i) – F, (ii) - T, (iii) - T

Explanation: The first statement is false; Rajdhani Express is a luxury train, not a luxury bus. The second statement is true; speed post is designed to deliver letters faster than ordinary post. The third statement is true; radio is indeed a means of communication.

Q47) In India, all major cities and towns are connected by:

a) River

b) Road

c) Sea

d) None of these

Answer: b) Road

Explanation: In India, all major cities and towns are connected by roads, which form an extensive network of transportation.

Q48) Which of the following is an audio/visual means of communication?

a) Television

b) Computer

c) Radio

d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: d) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: Television and computer are both audio/visual means of communication, as they convey information through both sound and images.

Q49) An expressway is:

a) road

b) railway

c) airway

d) water route

Answer: a) road

Explanation: An expressway is a type of road designed for high-speed travel, typically with limited access and no intersections, making it suitable for fast and efficient transportation.

Q50) Sledges are the means of transport which are used in:

a) desert

b) snow

c) land

d) water

Answer: b) snow

Explanation: Sledges are commonly used as a means of transport on snowy terrain. They are equipped with runners that allow them to glide over the snow's surface.

Q51) What is the world ranking of Indian railway network?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer: a) 1

Explanation: India has one of the largest railway networks in the world, ranking at number 1 in terms of total track length.

Q52) India’s first post office was set up in which place?

a) Mumbai

b) Calcutta

c) New Delhi

d) Madras

Answer: b) Calcutta

Explanation: India's first post office was set up in Calcutta (now Kolkata) during British colonial rule.

Q53) Which of the following can be used to travel from Delhi to USA?

a) Bus

b) Rail

c) Plane

d) None of these

Answer: c) Plane

Explanation: The most practical and common means of travel from Delhi to the USA is by airplane.

Q54) Which animal can be used to carry heavy logs and trunks in forests?

a) Horse

b) Donkey

c) Monkey

d) Elephant

Answer: d) Elephant

Explanation: Elephants are often used in some parts of the world, particularly in Asia, to carry heavy logs and trunks in forests due to their size and strength.

Q55) Which of these is not a helper at Indian Railways?

a) Bus

b) Ticket Checker

c) Coolie

d) Sweeper

Answer: a) Bus

Explanation: While ticket checkers, coolies, and sweepers are roles associated with Indian Railways, buses are not typically considered helpers within the context of railway operations.

Q56) Astronauts go into space in _______ .

a) space shuttle

b) rockets

c) bikes

d) cars

Answer: b) rockets

Explanation: Astronauts travel into space aboard rockets, which are powerful vehicles designed to carry payloads and crew beyond Earth's atmosphere.

Q57) Which of the following can go under water?

a) Ship

b) Jet

c) Submarine

d) None of these

Answer: c) Submarine

Explanation: Submarines are specifically designed watercraft capable of operating underwater, allowing them to travel beneath the ocean's surface for extended periods.

Q58) In a village, most of the roads are:

a) unmetalled

b) kutcha

c) pukka

d) pitched

Answer: b) kutcha

Explanation: In villages, many roads are often made of kutcha surfaces, which are less durable and more natural in comparison to paved or pitched roads.

Q59) Which mode of transport does not produce smoke?

a) Car

b) Truck

c) Cycle

d) None of these

Answer: c) Cycle

Explanation: Cycles are human-powered vehicles and do not have engines, so they do not produce smoke like cars and trucks.

Q60) Which is the slowest means of communication?

a) Telephone

b) Post Card

c) Fax

d) E-mail

Answer: b) Post Card

Explanation: Postcards typically take longer to reach their destination compared to other means of communication like telephone, fax, and email, which can be relatively faster.

4. GK Questions for Class 4 - Earth and Universe

Q61) To weigh roughly two-thirds less than that you weigh on Earth, which planet would you be on?

a) Uranus

b) Venus

c) Mars

d) Jupiter

Answer: c) Mars

Explanation: The gravitational force on Mars is weaker than that on Earth, so you would weigh less on Mars compared to Earth.

Q62) I am the largest member of the Solar system. I have my own light and without me plants can’t manufacture their food. Who am I?

a) Earth

b) Jupiter

c) Sun

d) Saturn

Answer: c) Sun

Explanation: The Sun is the largest celestial body in the Solar System and it emits light and energy through nuclear fusion. Plants use sunlight to perform photosynthesis, which is crucial for manufacturing food.

Q63) GPS that tracks the location is an abbreviation of

a) Global Pointing System

b) Global Positioning System

c) General Positioning System

d) Global Positioning Service

Answer: b) Global Positioning System

Explanation: GPS stands for Global Positioning System, which is used to track and determine locations using signals from satellites.

Q66) When was the first artificial satellite Sputnik-1 sent into space?

a) 1967

b) 1957

c) 1977

d) 1937

Answer: b) 1957

Explanation: The first artificial satellite, Sputnik-1, was launched into space by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957.

Q67) The Earth is in which Galaxy?

a) Andromeda Galaxy

b) Milky Way Galaxy

c) Cygnus A

d) Virgo A

Answer: b) Milky Way Galaxy

Explanation: The Earth is part of the Milky Way Galaxy, which is a spiral galaxy that contains our Solar System.

Q68) Which planet is known as earth’s Twin Sister Planet?

a) Jupiter

b) Saturn

c) Venus

d) Mars

Answer: c) Venus

Explanation: Venus is often referred to as Earth's "twin sister" planet due to their similar size and composition.

Q69) Comets revolves around

a) Sun

b) Moon

c) Earth

d) Venus

Answer: a) Sun

Explanation: Comets are celestial objects that have highly elliptical orbits around the Sun. As they approach the Sun, they develop a glowing coma and sometimes a tail.

Q70) The Period of one revolution of Sun around the centre of galaxy is called:

a) Parsec

b) Astronomical Year

c) Light Year

d) Cosmic Year

Answer: d) Cosmic Year

Explanation: The period of one revolution of the Sun around the center of our galaxy, the Milky Way, is referred to as a "Cosmic Year."

Q76) Messenger satellite has been launched by NASA for the study of:

a) Earth

b) Mars

c) Mercury

d) Neptune

Answer: c) Mercury

Explanation: The Messenger satellite was launched by NASA for the study of the planet Mercury.

Q71) Which among the following doesn't have its own light?

a) Stars

b) Moon

c) Sun

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Moon

Explanation: The Moon doesn't have its own light; it reflects the sunlight that falls on it.

Q72) What is the major constituent of the Sun?

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Helium and Hydrogen

d) Oxygen and Nitrogen

Answer: c) Helium and Hydrogen

Explanation: The major constituents of the Sun are helium and hydrogen.

Q73) How many days does it take to complete one revolution around the Sun for the planet Mercury?

a) 150 days

b) 365 days

c) 88 days

d) 235 days

Answer: c) 88 days

Explanation: It takes approximately 88 days for the planet Mercury to complete one revolution around the Sun.

Q74) The planet Uranus and its two moons, Oberon and Titania, were discovered by:

a) Stephen Hawking

b) Charles Messier

c) Harlow Shapley

d) Sir William Herschel

Answer: d) Sir William Herschel

Explanation: The planet Uranus and its two moons, Oberon and Titania, were discovered by Sir William Herschel.

Q75) These are cosmic snowballs of frozen gases, rock, and dust which, when they come close to the Sun, heat up and spew dust and gases. The dust and gases form a tail that stretches away from the Sun for millions of kilometers. These celestial bodies are:

a) Meteors

b) Comets

c) Stars

d) Asteroids

Answer: b) Comets

Explanation: Comets are cosmic snowballs that heat up and release dust and gases when they come close to the Sun, forming a characteristic tail.

Q76) Where is the headquarters of NASA?

a) New York

b) San Francisco

c) Washington D.C.

d) Dallas

Answer: c) Washington D.C.

Explanation: The headquarters of NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) is located in Washington D.C., USA.

Q77) The tilting of the Earth is responsible for:

a) Changes in day and night

b) Changes in seasons

c) Change of sun rays

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Changes in seasons

Explanation: The tilt of the Earth's axis is responsible for the changing seasons on our planet.

Q78) The earth rotates in which direction?

a) East to West

b) West to East

c) North to South

d) South to North

Answer: b) West to East

Explanation: The Earth rotates from West to East, causing the apparent movement of the Sun and stars across the sky.

Q79) Which of these planets rotates the slowest?

a) Venus

b) Jupiter

c) Saturn

d) All of these

Answer: a) Venus

Explanation: Venus rotates very slowly on its axis, taking a longer time to complete one rotation than it does to orbit the Sun.

Q80) Which planet is known as the Watery Planet?

a) Mercury

b) Venus

c) Earth

d) Jupiter

Answer: c) Earth

Explanation: Earth is often referred to as the "Watery Planet" due to its abundant water resources in the form of oceans, lakes, and rivers.

5. GK Questions for Class 4 - Our environment

Q81) The one thing (out of the options given below) common in all fossil fuels is

a) They were formed in marine environment.

b) They contain oxygen.

c) Have gone through a similar arrangement of geological processes during their development.

d) None of these

Answer: c) Have gone through a similar arrangement of geological processes during their development.

Explanation: All fossil fuels, including coal, oil, and natural gas, are formed through a similar arrangement of geological processes over millions of years.

Q82) Considering the environmental changes, the melting of ice and glaciers is

a) endangering of species

b) extinction of human beings

c) devastation

d) desertification

Answer: a) endangering of species

Explanation: The melting of ice and glaciers due to environmental changes can lead to the endangerment of various species that depend on these habitats.

Q83) ____________ is produced by breaking down the organic material in an oxygen-free environment with the help of enzymes.

a) Biomass

b) Biogas

c) Methane gas

d) Carbon-dioxide

Answer: b) Biogas

Explanation: Biogas is produced by breaking down organic material (such as animal waste and plant matter) in an oxygen-free environment through a process called anaerobic digestion, facilitated by enzymes.

Q84) Sunlight is used for generating ____

a) Hydroelectricity

b) Solar Energy

c) Thermal Energy

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Solar Energy

Explanation: Sunlight is used to generate solar energy through photovoltaic cells and solar panels.

Q85) Thermal is related to ____________

a) air

b) wind

c) heat

d) water

Answer: c) heat

Explanation: The term "thermal" is related to heat energy.

Q86) Wind is used as a _____ source of energy.

a) renewable

b) non-renewable

c) exhaustible

d) artificial

Answer: a) renewable

Explanation: Wind is considered a renewable source of energy because it is derived from natural processes that are continuously replenished.

Q87) Non-Renewable resources are _________

a) wind and water

b) air and sun

c) petroleum and fossil fuel

d) coal and air

Answer: c) petroleum and fossil fuel

Explanation: Non-renewable resources are those that cannot be easily replenished within a human lifetime, such as petroleum and fossil fuels.

Q88) Fossil fuels are remains of _________

a) petroleum

b) organisms

c) carbon dioxide

d) only insects

Answer: b) organisms

Explanation: Fossil fuels are formed from the remains of ancient plants and organisms that have undergone a natural process of decomposition and transformation.

Q89) Coal is obtained from _____________

a) pumping

b) extracting

c) drying

d) mining

Answer: d) mining

Explanation: Coal is obtained through the process of mining, where it is extracted from underground or surface coal mines.

Q90) Crude Oil is a ________________ resource.

a) Renewable

b) Non-Renewable

c) Abiotic

d) Potential

Answer: b) Non-Renewable

Explanation: Crude oil, also known as petroleum, is a non-renewable resource as it takes millions of years to form and cannot be quickly replenished once depleted.

Q91) Gases which cause global warming are responsible for increasing the _________.

a) earth’s temperature

b) wind

c) climate

d) energy

Answer: a) earth’s temperature

Explanation: Gases that cause global warming, such as carbon dioxide and methane, contribute to an increase in the Earth's average temperature.

Q92) Which among the following is the cause of global warming?

a) Seeding

b) Evaporation

c) Greenhouse Effect

d) None of the above

Answer: c) Greenhouse Effect

Explanation: Global warming is primarily caused by the greenhouse effect, which is the trapping of heat in the Earth's atmosphere due to certain gases.

Q93) Global warming causes changes in

a) rotation

b) revolution

c) climate

d) gases

Answer: c) climate

Explanation: Global warming leads to changes in the Earth's climate patterns, resulting in shifts in weather conditions and temperature.

Q94) Global warming is caused by effects of

a) soil pollution

b) water pollution

c) noise pollution

d) air pollution

Answer: d) air pollution

Explanation: Global warming is primarily caused by the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere, which is a result of various human activities including burning fossil fuels and industrial processes.

Q95) Soil Pollution is also known as

a) land pollution

b) radioactive pollution

c) water pollution

d) air pollution

Answer: a) land pollution

Explanation: Soil pollution refers to the contamination of soil by pollutants and chemicals, and it is also referred to as land pollution.

Q96) Continental regions have which type of season?

a) Hot summers

b) Cold winters

c) Thunderstorms

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Cold winters

Explanation: Continental regions tend to have cold winters due to their distance from large water bodies, which moderates temperatures in coastal areas.

Q97) The ozone hole is located in the ____

a) Troposphere over the Arctic

b) Stratosphere over the Antarctica

c) Stratosphere over the Arctic

d) Troposphere over the Antarctica

Answer: b) Stratosphere over the Antarctica

Explanation: The ozone hole is primarily located in the stratosphere over the Antarctic region, where there is a significant depletion of ozone layer.

Q98) Which of the following is nonbiodegradable?

a) Paper

b) Cotton

c) Metal can

d) Grass

Answer: c) Metal can

Explanation: Metal cans, like those made of aluminum or steel, are nonbiodegradable materials that do not break down easily in the environment.

Q99) Acid rain is caused due to …………………

a) water pollution

b) air pollution

c) noise pollution

d) soil pollution

Answer: b) air pollution

Explanation: Acid rain is caused by air pollution, particularly the release of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides from human activities like burning fossil fuels.

Q100) The Earth‘s atmosphere is made up of various gases. Which of the following best describes the composition of atmosphere?

a) Oxygen-78%, Nitrogen-21%, Others-1%

b) Oxygen-60%, Nitrogen-30%, Others-10%

c) Nitrogen-78%, Oxygen-21%, Others-1%

d) Nitrogen-78%, Oxygen-21%, Carbon dioxide-1%

Answer: c) Nitrogen-78%, Oxygen-21%, Others-1%

Explanation: The composition of the Earth's atmosphere is primarily nitrogen (about 78%), followed by oxygen (about 21%), and a small percentage of other gases.

6. GK Questions for Class 4 - India and the world

Q101) From where the design of the wheel on the National flag has been taken?

a) Throne of Ashoka, The Great

b) Charkha the symbol of Khadi movement

c) Abacus of the Sarnath Lion capital of Ashoka

d) Symbol of Industrialization

Answer: c) Abacus of the Sarnath Lion capital of Ashoka

Explanation: The design of the wheel on the National flag of India is taken from the abacus of the Sarnath Lion capital of Ashoka, which is a symbol of dharma and righteousness.

Q102) India is surrounded by __________.

a) Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean

b) Pacific ocean and Atlantic ocean

c) Maldives and Indian ocean

d) All of the above

Answer: a) Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean

Explanation: India is surrounded by the Bay of Bengal to the east, Arabian Sea to the west, and the Indian Ocean to the south.

Q103) How many spokes are there in National Emblem “Ashoka Chakra”?

a) 20

b) 15

c) 24

d) 12

Answer: b) 15

Explanation: The National Emblem "Ashoka Chakra" has 24 spokes representing the Ashoka Chakra (wheel) in the Sarnath Lion capital of Ashoka.

Q104) Which one is not correctly matched?

a) Lasagne- Italy

b) Ankimo- Japan

c) Rendang- Russia

d) Masala Dosa- India

Answer: c) Rendang- Russia

Explanation: The dish "Rendang" is a traditional meat dish from Indonesia, not Russia.

Q105) Who among the following preserved the Union during the U.S Civil war?

a) Nelson Mandela

b) Abraham Lincoln

c) Mother Teresa

d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: b) Abraham Lincoln

Explanation: Abraham Lincoln preserved the Union during the U.S Civil War and is one of the most renowned presidents of the United States.

Q106) Which among the following states touch the border of China?

a) Jammu Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh

b) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh

c) Gujarat and Delhi

d) Himachal Pradesh and Kolkata

Answer: b) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: The states of Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh share borders with China.

Q107) Where is Al Aqsa Mosque situated?

a) Baghdad

b) Jerusalem

c) Cambodia

d) Nepal

Answer: b) Jerusalem

Explanation: The Al Aqsa Mosque is situated in Jerusalem, which is an important religious site for Muslims.

Q108) Which one of the following is the traditional dress of Japan?

a) Tracht

b) Saree

c) Gho

d) Kimono

Answer: d) Kimono

Explanation: The traditional dress of Japan is called a "Kimono," which is a distinctive style of clothing.

Q109) Nepal is located in the

a) Fuji mountain

b) Himalaya mountain

c) Sahara Desert

d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: b) Himalaya mountain

Explanation: Nepal is located in the Himalaya mountain range, known for its towering peaks including Mount Everest.

Q110) Maldives is located in _____ of India

a) North- east

b) North

c) South- west

d) South- east

Answer: d) South- east

Explanation: Maldives is located in the South-east of India in the Indian Ocean.

Q111) Sri Lanka and India are separated by

a) Malacca Strait

b) Cook Strait

c) Sunda Strait

d) Palk Strait

Answer: d) Palk Strait

Explanation: Sri Lanka and India are separated by the Palk Strait, a narrow strip of water between the southeastern coast of India and the northern coast of Sri Lanka.

Q112) Which country among the following has two capitals?

a) India

b) Bolivia

c) Benin

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Bolivia

Explanation: Bolivia is a country in South America that has two capitals: La Paz (administrative capital) and Sucre (constitutional capital).

Q113) Which region was earlier known as Abyssinia?

a) Europe

b) Ethiopia

c) Egypt

d) None

Answer: b) Ethiopia

Explanation: The region Abyssinia was earlier known as Ethiopia, which is a country located in the Horn of Africa.

Q114) What is the capital of Australia?

a) London

b) Canberra

c) Brasilia

d) Ottawa

Answer: b) Canberra

Explanation: The capital of Australia is Canberra, a purpose-built city located in the Australian Capital Territory.

Q115) Who is known as the “Creator of Mickey Mouse”?

a) Karan Johar

b) Walt Disney

c) Lillian Disney

d) Roy O. Disney

Answer: b) Walt Disney

Explanation: Walt Disney is known as the "Creator of Mickey Mouse," the iconic cartoon character and the mascot of The Walt Disney Company.

Q116) Dish Chili Crab belongs to which country?

a) Spain

b) Singapore

c) London

d) Hong Kong

Answer: b) Singapore

Explanation: The dish Chili Crab belongs to Singapore and is a popular seafood dish known for its spicy and flavorful sauce.

Q117) Who was the 16th President of United States?

a) Mother Teresa

b) George Bush

c) Albert Einstein

d) Abraham Lincoln

Answer: d) Abraham Lincoln

Explanation: Abraham Lincoln was the 16th President of the United States and is best known for his leadership during the Civil War and his efforts to end slavery.

Q118) “Statue of Liberty” is near to which of the following cities?

a) New York

b) Rome

c) Ottawa

d) England

Answer: a) New York

Explanation: The "Statue of Liberty" is located on Liberty Island in New York Harbor, near the city of New York.

Q119) Which is the largest state in India in terms of area?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Rajasthan

Answer: d) Rajasthan

Explanation: Rajasthan is the largest state in India in terms of area. It is located in the northern part of the country.

Q120) Which is the currency of South Africa?

a) Shilling

b) Dollar

c) Rand

d) Euro

Answer: c) Rand

Explanation: The currency of South Africa is the South African Rand (ZAR).

7. GK Questions for Class 4 - Science and technology

Q121) Who is known as the “Father of Robotics”?

a) Alexander Graham Bell

b) Joseph Engelberger

c) Charles Darwin

d) Douglas Engelbart

Answer: b) Joseph Engelberger

Explanation: Joseph Engelberger is known as the "Father of Robotics" for his pioneering work in the field of industrial robotics.

Q122) He was a Scottish Engineer, who demonstrated the first working Television system in 1926. He was the inventor of both the first publicly demonstrated colour television. Who was he?

a) Charles Darwin

b) John Logie Baird

c) Douglas Engel Bart

d) Samuel Morse

Answer: b) John Logie Baird

Explanation: John Logie Baird, a Scottish engineer, demonstrated the first working television system in 1926 and is known for inventing the first publicly demonstrated color television.

Q123) Which of these was invented by James Watt?

a) Steam engine

b) Telephone

c) Gramophone

d) Driving bell

Answer: a) Steam engine

Explanation: James Watt invented the steam engine, a pivotal invention of the Industrial Revolution.

Q124) Which of these was invented by Karl Benz?

a) Glider

b) Gasoline

c) Jet engine

d) Motor car

Answer: d) Motor car

Explanation: Karl Benz invented the motor car, marking a significant step in the development of automobiles.

Q125) Choose the correct statement:

I. Application software runs on its own. It does not need human interface.

II. Operating System is a system software.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) None

Answer: b) Only II

Explanation: The correct statement is II. Operating System is a system software. Application software typically requires human interaction to run.

Q126) What did Christian Huygens invent?

a) Barometer

b) Thermometer

c) Bicycle

d) Pendulum clock

Answer: d) Pendulum clock

Explanation: Christian Huygens invented the pendulum clock, a significant advancement in timekeeping technology.

Q127) Who invented Jet Engine?

a) Sir Frank Whittle

b) Gotteleb Daimler

c) Roger Bacon

d) Lewis E. Walter man

Answer: a) Sir Frank Whittle

Q128) Who invented X-Rays?

a) Isaac Newton

b) Roentgen

c) Emile Berliner

d) Roentgen

Answer: b) Roentgen

Q129) Who invented Ballpoint pen?

a) Walter man Brothers

b) White Brothers

c) Rutherford

d) John Lord

Answer: a) Walter man Brothers

Q130) Who invented incandescent light bulb?

a) Thomas Alva Edison

b) Michael Faraday

c) Alfred B. Nobel

d) D. C. Biro

Answer: a) Thomas Alva Edison

Q131) Who invented Pedal driven Bicycle?

a) Karl Benz

b) Wright Brothers

c) K. Macmillan

d) Torricelli

Answer: c) K. Macmillan

Q132) Who invented X-Rays?

a) Isaac Newton

b) Roentgen

c) Emile Berliner

d) Roentgen

Answer: b) Roentgen

Explanation: X-Rays were discovered by Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen, a German physicist, in 1895.

Q133) Who invented Ballpoint pen?

a) Walter man Brothers

b) White Brothers

c) Rutherford

d) John Lord

Answer: a) Walter man Brothers

Explanation: The ballpoint pen was invented by Laszlo Biro, a Hungarian-Argentinian journalist, and his brother George Biro in 1938.

Q134) Who invented incandescent light bulb?

a) Thomas Alva Edison

b) Michael Faraday

c) Alfred B. Nobel

d) D. C. Biro

Answer: a) Thomas Alva Edison

Explanation: The incandescent light bulb was invented by Thomas Alva Edison in 1879, contributing to the widespread use of electric lighting.

Q135) Who invented Pedal driven Bicycle?

a) Karl Benz

b) Wright Brothers

c) K. Macmillan

d) Torricelli

Answer: c) K. Macmillan

Explanation: Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, is credited with inventing the pedal-driven bicycle in the early 19th century.

Q136) These are the eyeglasses with two distinct optical powers. They are commonly prescribed to people with presbyopia. They were invented by Benjamin Franklin. What type of lenses are these?

a) Trifocals

b) Prism

c) Bifocals

d) Toric

Answer: c) Bifocals

Explanation: Bifocal lenses, invented by Benjamin Franklin, have two distinct optical powers and are used to address presbyopia, a condition related to near vision.

Q137) Who invented Gramophone?

a) Michael Faraday

b) Emile Berliner

c) John Adams

d) Thomas Alva Edison

Answer: b) Emile Berliner

Q138) Stars are made up of ___________.

a) Metals

b) Plasma

c) Liquid

d) Carbon-dioxide

Answer: b) Plasma

Q139) On adding salt to water while boiling, the boiling point of water is _________.

a) increased

b) decreased

c) same

d) all of the above

Answer: a) increased

Q140) These are the eyeglasses with two distinct optical powers. They are commonly prescribed to people with presbyopia. They were invented by Benjamin Franklin. What type of lenses are these?

a) Trifocals

b) Prism

c) Bifocals

d) Toric

Answer: c) Bifocals

8. GK Questions for Class 4 - Sports and entertainment

Q141) She is an Indian professional badminton player who gained widespread fame after securing a silver medal in the 2016 Rio Olympics. Her victory made her the first Indian woman to achieve a silver medal at the Olympics. Identify her.

a) Saina Nehwal

b) Jwala Gutta

c) P.V. Sindhu

d) Ashwini Ponnappa

Answer: c) P.V. Sindhu

Explanation: P.V. Sindhu is the Indian badminton player who won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics, becoming the first Indian woman to achieve this feat at the Olympics.

Q142) A Norwegian chess prodigy who achieved the title of grandmaster at the age of 13. He defeated world champion Viswanathan Anand to claim the title. Who is this remarkable young man?

a) Bobby Fischer

b) Magnus Carlsen

c) Vladimir Kramnik

d) Sergey Karjakin

Answer: b) Magnus Carlsen

Explanation: Magnus Carlsen is the Norwegian chess prodigy who became a grandmaster at a young age and defeated Viswanathan Anand to become a world champion in chess.

Q143) This snowman was created by Anna and Elsa during their childhood. Elsa accidentally brought him to life. He guides Anna and her friends to Elsa's hideaway. Who is this exceptional snowman?

a) Sven

b) Peter

c) Kristoff

d) Olaf

Answer: d) Olaf

Explanation: Olaf is the snowman character created by Anna and Elsa in the movie "Frozen." Elsa's magical powers inadvertently brought him to life, and he plays a significant role in the story.

Q144) Which of the following companies uses the advertising slogan "Share moments. Share life"?

a) Coca-Cola

b) Apple

c) Samsung

d) Kodak

Answer: d) Kodak

Explanation: Kodak, a well-known photography company, used the advertising slogan "Share moments. Share life" to emphasize the importance of capturing and sharing memories through photography.

Q145) The boat race shown in the picture is a famous festival sport of which Indian state?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Karnataka

c) Kerala

d) Goa

Answer: c) Kerala

Explanation: The boat race depicted in the picture is a popular festival sport known as the "Vallam Kali" or snake boat race, celebrated mainly in the state of Kerala, India.

Q146) The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is a prestigious international tournament associated with which sport?

a) Badminton

b) Hockey

c) Table Tennis

d) Golf

Answer: b) Hockey

Explanation: The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual international men's field hockey tournament held in Malaysia. It is a significant event in the field hockey calendar.

Q147) Who became the first-ever Indian batsman to score a century in the first session of the first day of a test match?

a) Virat Kohli

b) Shikhar Dhawan

c) Murali Vijay

d) KL Rahul

Answer: b) Shikhar Dhawan

Explanation: Shikhar Dhawan achieved this milestone by scoring a century in the first session of the first day of a test match, becoming the first Indian batsman to do so.

Q148) Which of the following sports is NOT included in the Summer Olympic games?

a) Curling

b) Shooting

c) Cycling

d) Archery

Answer: a) Curling

Explanation: Curling is a winter sport that involves sliding stones on ice, and it is not a part of the Summer Olympic games.

Q149) Which of the following is the National Game of Japan?

a) Taekwondo

b) Football

c) Handball

d) Sumo wrestling

Answer: d) Sumo wrestling

Explanation: Sumo wrestling is recognized as the National Game of Japan. It is a traditional Japanese sport involving two wrestlers in a ring.

Q150) Identify the martial art in the given picture:

a) Wrestling

b) Kyodo

c) Judo

d) Sumo

Answer: c) Judo

Explanation: The martial art depicted in the picture is Judo, a Japanese sport and martial art that emphasizes throws and grappling techniques.

Q151) WWE stands for

a) World Wrestling Enterprises

b) Worldwide Enterprises

c) World Wrestling Entertainment

d) None of these

Answer: c) World Wrestling Entertainment

Explanation: WWE stands for World Wrestling Entertainment, a popular professional wrestling promotion and entertainment company.

Q152) Which one of the following is not a form of martial art?

a) Karate

b) Sung Fu

c) Judo

d) None

Answer: b) Sung Fu

Explanation: "Sung Fu" is not a recognized form of martial art. The correct term is "Kung Fu," which refers to various Chinese martial arts.

Q153) Davis Cup is related to ___________.

a) Golf

b) Table Tennis

c) Lawn Tennis

d) Football

Answer: c) Lawn Tennis

Explanation: The Davis Cup is an international tennis competition for male players, representing their respective countries in the sport of lawn tennis.

Q154) When was Men’s Hockey Junior World Cup tournament founded?

a) 1969

b) 1979

c) 1989

d) 1999

Answer: d) 1999

Explanation: The Men’s Hockey Junior World Cup tournament was founded in the year 1999, providing a platform for young hockey players to showcase their talent on an international stage.

Q155) Rodger Federer is associated with which sport?

a) Basketball

b) Cycling

c) Tennis

d) Football

Answer: c) Tennis

Explanation: Roger Federer is a renowned Swiss tennis player and one of the greatest players in the history of the sport, with numerous Grand Slam titles to his name.

Q156) Who was the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in the Commonwealth Games?

a) Milkha Singh

b) Pele

c) Sachin Tendulkar

d) Jordan

Answer: a) Milkha Singh

Explanation: Milkha Singh, also known as the "Flying Sikh," was the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal in the Commonwealth Games. He was a sprinter and national hero.

Q157) Travancore Cup is related to which game?

a) Badminton

b) Table Tennis

c) Lawn Tennis

d) Horse Riding

Answer: c) Lawn Tennis

Explanation: The Travancore Cup is associated with the sport of lawn tennis. It is a prestigious tennis tournament named after the historic region of Travancore in India.

Q158) Rovers’ Cup is related to which sport?

a) Football

b) Basketball

c) Chess

d) Hockey

Answer: a) Football

Explanation: The Rovers’ Cup is a prestigious football tournament held in India. It has a rich history and is associated with the sport of football.

Q159) Who is known as the "Little Master" in Cricket?

a) Sachin Tendulkar

b) Virat Kohli

c) Shikhar Dhawan

d) Yuvraj Singh

Answer: a) Sachin Tendulkar

Explanation: Sachin Tendulkar, the legendary Indian cricketer, is often referred to as the "Little Master" due to his remarkable batting skills and achievements in the game.

Q160) Madhubani painting originated in which state of India?

a) Bihar

b) Kerala

c) Karnataka

d) West Bengal

Answer: a) Bihar

Explanation: Madhubani painting, also known as Mithila painting, originated in the state of Bihar, India. It is a traditional art form characterized by vibrant colors and intricate designs.

9. GK Questions for Class 4 - Language and literature

Q161) Who is the author of the novel "The God of Small Things," which won the Man Booker Prize in 1997?

a) Kiran Desai

b) Jhumpa Lehri

c) Arundhati Roy

d) Anita Desai

Answer: c) Arundhati Roy

Explanation: Arundhati Roy is the author of "The God of Small Things," and she won the Man Booker Prize for this novel in 1997.

Q162) Who is the writer of "The Jungle Book"?

a) Rudyard Kipling

b) Charles Dickens

c) Rowan

d) John Kipling

Answer: a) Rudyard Kipling

Explanation: "The Jungle Book" is written by Rudyard Kipling.

Q163) What is a suffix?

a) A word attached to the beginning of another word

b) A word attached to the end of another word

c) A word attached both to the beginning and end of another word

d) None of the above

Answer: b) A word attached to the end of another word

Explanation: A suffix is a linguistic element added to the end of a word to modify its meaning or create a new word.

Q164) Which pairs of words rhyme?

I. Set-Pet

II. Fish-Wish

III. On-Off

IV. Kid-Bus

a) I and II only

b) II and III only

c) III and IV only

d) I, II and IV only

Answer: d) I, II and IV only

Explanation: The pairs that rhyme are I. Set-Pet and II. Fish-Wish.

Q165) What was the title of Ruskin Bond's first book?

a) The Night Train at Deoli

b) The World Outside my Window

c) A Flight of Pigeons

d) The Room on the Roof

Answer: d) The Room on the Roof

Explanation: Ruskin Bond's first book is "The Room on the Roof."

Q166) Identify the misspelled word from the following options:

a) Whelchair

b) Weekend

c) Weekday

d) Weaken

Answer: a) Whelchair

Explanation: The correct spelling is "Wheelchair."

Q167) Complete the book title: "The Diary of ____________"

a) An Old Woman

b) A Young Boy

c) A Young Girl

d) Malala

Answer: c) A Young Girl

Explanation: The complete book title is "The Diary of a Young Girl."

Q168) Why is mythology important?

a) It teaches us the difference between good and evil

b) It teaches us to respect our elders

c) It teaches us about our culture

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Mythology serves multiple purposes, including teaching moral lessons, cultural values, and historical insights.

Q169) What does the phrase "Once in a blue moon" mean?

a) Not happening very often

b) Night sky full of stars

c) The color of the moon is blue

d) None of the above

Answer: a) Not happening very often

Explanation: The phrase "Once in a blue moon" refers to an event that occurs rarely or infrequently.

Q170) Which biography is about the cricketer Sachin Tendulkar?

a) Playing it My Way

b) 100 Centuries

c) Little Master

d) None

Answer: a) Playing it My Way

Explanation: "Playing it My Way" is the biography of cricketer Sachin Tendulkar.

Q171) Which language is the most widely spoken in the world?

a) Mandarin Chinese

b) English

c) Spanish

d) Hindi

Answer: a) Mandarin Chinese

Explanation: Mandarin Chinese is the most widely spoken language in the world by native speakers.

Q172) How many years was Lord Rama sent to exile according to the Hindu epic "Ramayana"?

a) 13 years

b) 12 years

c) 11 years

d) 14 years

Answer: d) 14 years

Explanation: According to the Hindu epic "Ramayana," Lord Rama was sent to exile for a period of 14 years.

Q173) Who authored the play "Hamlet"?

a) William Shakespeare

b) Jane Austen

c) Thomas Hardy

d) Lewis Carroll

Answer: a) William Shakespeare

Explanation: "Hamlet" is a famous play written by William Shakespeare.

Q174) Which novel is Chetan Bhagat's debut book?

a) 2 States

b) Five Point Someone

c) One Indian Girl

d) The 3 Mistakes of My Life

Answer: b) Five Point Someone

Explanation: Chetan Bhagat's debut book is "Five Point Someone."

Q175) What does the idiom 'A slap on the wrist' mean?

a) Act of God

b) A mild punishment

c) Not answering someone's call

d) To face difficulties

Answer: b) A mild punishment

Explanation: The idiom 'A slap on the wrist' refers to receiving a mild or lenient punishment for a wrongdoing.

Q176) Who wrote the famous poem "The Charge of the Light Brigade"?

a) Johannes Gutenberg

b) Rene Descartes

c) Christopher Marlowe

d) Alfred Lord Tennyson

Answer: d) Alfred Lord Tennyson

Explanation: The famous poem "The Charge of the Light Brigade" was written by Alfred Lord Tennyson.

Q177) Which statement is correct regarding idioms?

I. Getting the taste of your medicine means being treated in the same way as you are treating others.

II. Giving someone a cold shoulder means ignoring someone.

a) I only

b) II only

c) Both I and II

d) None

Answer: c) Both I and II

Explanation: Both statements I and II are correct interpretations of their respective idioms.

Q178) Which book is written by Manmohan Singh?

a) Capital in the Twenty-First Century

b) Poor Economics

c) Changing India

d) None of the above

Answer: c) Changing India

Explanation: The book "Changing India" is written by Manmohan Singh.

Q179) Who wrote the book "Arthashastra"?

a) Chanakya

b) Kalidasa

c) Vyasa

d) None of these

Answer: a) Chanakya

Explanation: The book "Arthashastra" is attributed to the ancient Indian scholar Chanakya.

Q180) What is the meaning of the idiom "On the Ball"?

a) Rock and Roll

b) Roller Coaster

c) Being responsible

d) Tipping Over

Answer: c) Being responsible

Explanation: The idiom "On the Ball" means being attentive, efficient, and responsible in one's actions.

10. Grade 4 GK Questions - Life skills

Q201) You spot an elderly neighbor climbing stairs with a heavy bag while playing in the garden. What will you do?

a) Tease her

b) Keep playing

c) Assist her with the load

d) Ignore her

Answer: c) Assist her with the load

Explanation: Being considerate and helpful to others is important in such situations.

Q202) Feeling nervous before a class poetry recitation competition, what should you do?

a) Skip the competition

b) Participate despite nervousness

c) Request a postponement

d) None of these

Answer: b) Participate despite nervousness

Explanation: Nervousness is normal and participating helps build confidence.

Q203) While visiting Qutub Minar, friends want to write the school's name on a wall. Your suggestion?

a) Use chalk

b) Avoid writing on walls

c) Write names together

d) To write in a secretful manner

Answer: b) Avoid writing on walls

Explanation: Suggesting to respect historical sites by not defacing them.

Q204) Namita fears showing her paintings due to criticism. What advice would you give her?

a) Stop painting

b) Share her talent confidently

c) Show paintings to family

d) Pursue a painting career

Answer: b) Share her talent confidently

Explanation: Encouraging her to be self-assured about her abilities.

Q205) What action should NOT be taken during flooding or potential flooding?

a) Avoid low flood-prone areas

b) Walk through moving water

c) Avoid touching wet electrical equipment

d) Keep emergency supplies

Answer: b) Walk through moving water

Explanation: Walking through moving water during flooding can be dangerous and risky.

Q206) What should you do during earthquake tremors indoors?

a) Cover head and torso to prevent hits

b) Use elevator to reach exit

c) Shut off gas valves and unplug cords

d) Take stairs and move to open area

Answer: a) Cover head and torso to prevent hits

Explanation: Protecting oneself from potential falling objects during an earthquake.

Q207) How should a new Hindi medium student adjust in an English medium school?

a) Leave the school

b) Communicate in English, ask questions

c) Stay silent

d) Both b and c

Answer: Communicate in English, ask questions

Explanation: Encouraging the student to engage, ask questions, and adapt to the new environment.

Q208) Identify elements of a group project.

1. Convey ideas clearly

2. Keep silent if unaware

3. Decide by consensus

4. Recognized leadership

5. Be ready to compromise

a) 1, 3, 4

b) 1, 2, 5

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 3, 4, 5

Answer: a) 1, 3, 4

Explanation: Key aspects of effective group collaboration.

Q209) What should you do if you hit a puppy while riding a bicycle?

a) Run away

b) Take care of the puppy and feed him

c) Leave the scene

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Take care of the puppy and feed him

Explanation: Demonstrates responsibility and empathy towards the injured animal.

Q210) Why is moral education important?

a) It promotes competition

b) It fosters selfish behavior

c) It cultivates compassion and responsibility

d) It encourages dishonesty

Answer: c) It cultivates compassion and responsibility

Explanation: Moral education helps in developing positive character traits and contributing to a better society.

Q211) What should you do if a classmate asks for help understanding a math concept?

a) Help by explaining using relevant examples

b) Explain using unrelated topics

c) Politely decline due to being busy

d) Ignore the request

Answer: a) Help by explaining using relevant examples

Explanation: Being helpful and supportive in assisting a classmate's learning.

Q212) Arrange the correct sequence of problem-solving steps:

1. Gather information

2. Identify the problem

3. Choose among different alternatives

4. Review and come up with final solution

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

b) 4, 3, 2, 1

c) 3, 1, 4, 2

d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation: Problem-solving often involves a systematic approach. First, you need to identify the problem (Step 2) by understanding the issue at hand. Then, you gather information (Step 1) to better comprehend the problem's context and scope. Once you have a clear understanding, you move on to choosing among different alternatives (Step 3), exploring potential solutions. Finally, after evaluating your alternatives, you review and come up with a final solution (Step 4), ensuring it addresses the problem effectively. This sequence ensures a structured and logical process for problem-solving.

Q213) What will you do if your mother asks you to get her a glass of water?

a) Tell her that you are in the middle of a game and cannot get her water

b) Quickly fetch it for her

c) Suggest her to ask the house help

d) Suggest her that she should not drink water

Answer: b) Quickly fetch it for her

Explanation: Demonstrates willingness to help and respect for elders.

Q214) Which of the following is NOT a good habit?

a) Standing up when National Anthem is played

b) Helping your teacher to carry note books

c) Doing your homework on time

d) Throwing waste on the street after cleaning your house

Answer: d) Throwing waste on the street after cleaning your house

Explanation: Encourages littering and a lack of civic sense.

Q215) What will you do if a salesperson is persuading you to buy an unnecessary book?

a) Ignore him

b) Politely say that you do not need it

c) Shout at him for disturbing you

d) Buy the book

Answer: b) Politely say that you do not need it

Explanation: Demonstrates assertiveness and making informed choices.

Q216) Which of the following values shows sportsmanship?

a) In a sports arena, there are only opponents and no friends

b) You should cry if you lose the match

c) Losing the match is not the end of everything but beginning of learning valuable lessons

d) It is more important to win the match than to take part in it

Answer: c) Losing the match is not the end of everything but beginning of learning valuable lessons

Explanation: Demonstrates resilience, humility, and the ability to learn from setbacks.

Q217) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) A person does not fight with others on being criticised is called tolerant

b) Actions taken in hurry can often be wrong

c) A person who waits for his turn is called patient

d) Those who do not tolerate other people’s opinions are called sensible

Answer: d) Those who do not tolerate other people’s opinions are called sensible

Explanation: Sensible people respect diverse opinions and are open to discussion.

Q218) What should you do when going for a safari in a National park?

a) Carry homemade food items to feed the animals

b) Always go after sunset

c) Get an officially registered nature’s guide who will help you in spotting wildlife

d) Play loud music to entertain animals

Answer: c) Get an officially registered nature’s guide who will help you in spotting wildlife

Explanation: Respecting nature and wildlife, and ensuring a safe and informative experience.

Q219) Surbhi could not win the poem recitation competition she participated in. What should she do now?

a) She should be depressed

b) She should try harder for the next competition

c) She should blame the judges

d) She should take out her anger on the participants

Answer: b) She should try harder for the next competition

Explanation: Encourages perseverance, learning from failures, and continuous improvement.

Q220) As the new captain of your cricket team, what responsibilities should you fulfill for your team's success?

a) Display pride that you became the captain and others couldn’t.

b) Never listen to your teammates.

c) Help teammates achieve the common goal.

d) Never attend team meetings.

Answer: c) Help teammates achieve the common goal.

Explanation: As the captain, your role is to support and guide your teammates towards a shared objective for the success of the team. Effective leadership involves assisting and motivating your team members.

11. Grade 4 GK - Sample paper

Q221) What is the largest ocean on Earth?

a) Atlantic Ocean

b) Indian Ocean

c) Arctic Ocean

d) Pacific Ocean

Answer: d) Pacific Ocean

Explanation: The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth, covering a vast area.

Q222) Which famous artist painted the Mona Lisa?

a) Vincent van Gogh

b) Leonardo da Vinci

c) Pablo Picasso

d) Michelangelo

Answer: b) Leonardo da Vinci

Explanation: The Mona Lisa is a famous painting created by the Italian artist Leonardo da Vinci.

Q223) What is the process by which plants make their own food using sunlight?

a) Respiration

b) Photosynthesis

c) Germination

d) Transpiration

Answer: b) Photosynthesis

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process through which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich molecules like glucose.

Q224) Which famous scientist formulated the laws of motion and universal gravitation?

a) Isaac Newton

b) Albert Einstein

c) Galileo Galilei

d) Johannes Kepler

Answer: a) Isaac Newton

Explanation: Sir Isaac Newton is known for his groundbreaking work on the laws of motion and the law of universal gravitation.

Q225) Which historical civilization built the famous pyramids in Egypt?

a) Roman Empire

b) Ancient Greece

c) Egyptian Empire

d) Babylonian Empire

Answer: c) Egyptian Empire

Explanation: The ancient Egyptians built the iconic pyramids as elaborate tombs for their pharaohs and rulers.

Q226) Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?

a) Venus

b) Mars

c) Jupiter

d) Saturn

Answer: b) Mars

Explanation: Mars is often referred to as the "Red Planet" due to its reddish appearance caused by iron-rich minerals on its surface.

Q227) What is the tallest mountain in the world?

a) Mount Kilimanjaro

b) Mount Everest

c) Mount McKinley

d) Mount Fuji

Answer: b) Mount Everest

Explanation: Mount Everest, located in the Himalayas, is the highest peak on Earth, reaching an elevation of over 29,000 feet (8,800 meters).

Q228) Who painted the famous artwork "Starry Night"?

a) Pablo Picasso

b) Vincent van Gogh

c) Salvador Dali

d) Claude Monet

Answer: b) Vincent van Gogh

Explanation: "Starry Night" is a masterpiece by Dutch artist Vincent van Gogh, known for its swirling and vibrant depiction of the night sky.

Q229) Which natural resource is referred to as "black gold"?

a) Coal

b) Gold

c) Oil

d) Diamonds

Answer: c) Oil

Explanation: Oil is often called "black gold" due to its economic value and significance in various industries.

Q230) What is the study of fossils called?

a) Anthropology

b) Paleontology

c) Archaeology

d) Geology

Answer: b) Paleontology

Explanation: Paleontology is the scientific study of fossils and the history of life on Earth, including plants, animals, and other organisms.

Q231) Which river is the longest in the world?

a) Nile River

b) Amazon River

c) Mississippi River

d) Yangtze River

Answer: a) Nile River

Explanation: The Nile River in Africa is recognized as the longest river in the world, stretching over 4,000 miles (6,400 kilometers).

Q232) What is the capital city of Australia?

a) Sydney

b) Melbourne

c) Canberra

d) Brisbane

Answer: c) Canberra

Explanation: Canberra is the capital city of Australia, located in the Australian Capital Territory.

Q233) Which famous scientist developed the theory of relativity?

a) Isaac Newton

b) Albert Einstein

c) Galileo Galilei

d) Nikola Tesla

Answer: b) Albert Einstein

Explanation: Albert Einstein is known for his groundbreaking theory of relativity, which revolutionized our understanding of space, time, and gravity.

Q234) What is the process by which plants make their own food using sunlight?

a) Respiration

b) Photosynthesis

c) Digestion

d) Decomposition

Answer: b) Photosynthesis

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process through which plants convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into glucose (sugar) and oxygen.

Q235) Which gas do plants absorb from the atmosphere and release oxygen?

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Nitrogen

c) Oxygen

d) Hydrogen

Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: Plants absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct.

Q236) What is the currency of Japan?

a) Yen

b) Euro

c) Dollar

d) Rupee

Answer: a) Yen

Explanation: The official currency of Japan is the Japanese Yen (JPY).

Q237) Which country uses the currency called Baht?

a) Thailand

b) South Korea

c) Vietnam

d) Malaysia

Answer: a) Thailand

Explanation: The currency of Thailand is called the Thai Baht (THB).

Q238) What is the currency of Russia?

a) Ruble

b) Rial

c) Franc

d) Pound

Answer: a) Ruble

Explanation: The official currency of Russia is the Russian Ruble (RUB).

Q239) Which currency is used in India?

a) Yen

b) Euro

c) Dollar

d) Rupee

Answer: d) Rupee

Explanation: The currency of India is the Indian Rupee (INR).

Q240) The currency known as the "Euro" is used in which group of countries?

a) European Union

b) Commonwealth of Nations

c) United Nations

d) African Union

Answer: a) European Union

Explanation: The Euro (EUR) is the official currency of the countries in the European Union (EU).

Q241) Which animal, known for its black and white stripes, is critically endangered due to habitat loss?

a) Zebra

b) Giraffe

c) Elephant

d) Tiger

Answer: d) Tiger

Explanation: Tigers are critically endangered primarily due to habitat loss and poaching.

Q242) Which flightless bird from New Zealand is now endangered due to human activity?

a) Emu

b) Kiwi

c) Ostrich

d) Cassowary

Answer: b) Kiwi

Explanation: The Kiwi bird from New Zealand is endangered and some species are extinct due to habitat destruction and introduced predators.

Q243) Which large marine mammal, known for its tusks, is threatened by climate change and hunting?

a) Walrus

b) Dolphin

c) Seal

d) Whale

Answer: a) Walrus

Explanation: Walruses are vulnerable due to climate change affecting their sea ice habitat and historical hunting practices.

Q244) The Dodo, a flightless bird, went extinct on which island?

a) Galapagos Islands

b) Madagascar

c) Hawaii

d) Seychelles

Answer: b) Madagascar

Explanation: The Dodo bird went extinct on the island of Mauritius, which is located in the Indian Ocean near Madagascar.

Q245) The Great Barrier Reef, a unique marine ecosystem, is endangered due to what major threat?

a) Overfishing

b) Pollution

c) Climate change

d) Habitat destruction

Answer: c) Climate change

Explanation: Climate change has led to coral bleaching and deterioration of the Great Barrier Reef, putting it at risk.

Q246) Who was the first human to travel into space?

a) Yuri Gagarin

b) Neil Armstrong

c) John Glenn

d) Buzz Aldrin

Answer: a) Yuri Gagarin

Explanation: Yuri Gagarin, a Soviet cosmonaut, was the first human to orbit the Earth in 1961.

Q247) Which spacecraft carried the first astronauts to the Moon's surface in 1969?

a) Apollo 11

b) Mercury

c) Gemini

d) Skylab

Answer: a) Apollo 11

Explanation: The Apollo 11 spacecraft carried astronauts Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin to the Moon's surface.

Q248) Who was the first woman to travel to space?

a) Sally Ride

b) Valentina Tereshkova

c) Mae Jemison

d) Christa McAuliffe

Answer: b) Valentina Tereshkova

Explanation: Valentina Tereshkova, a Soviet cosmonaut, became the first woman to travel to space in 1963.

Q249) Which famous astronaut was the first person to walk on the Moon?

a) Yuri Gagarin

b) John Glenn

c) Neil Armstrong

d) Buzz Aldrin

Answer: c) Neil Armstrong

Explanation: Neil Armstrong was the first person to step onto the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 mission in 1969.

Q250) Who led the expedition that resulted in the discovery of the North American continent in 1492?

a) Ferdinand Magellan

b) Christopher Columbus

c) Marco Polo

d) Vasco da Gama

Answer: b) Christopher Columbus

Explanation: Christopher Columbus, an Italian explorer, led the expedition that resulted in the discovery of the North American continent in 1492.